JEE Main 2026 Analysis (21st Jan Shift 1): Memory Based Questions, Difficulty Level & Subject-Wise Review

The National Testing Agency (NTA) successfully conducted the first shift of JEE Main 2026 today, January 21st (Morning Shift: 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM). For aspirants preparing for upcoming shifts, understanding the trend of this first paper is crucial.

Based on student feedback and memory-based questions, the overall difficulty of the paper was Moderate to Tough, with Chemistry emerging as the surprise "rank decider" due to its length.

Here is a complete breakdown of the JEE Main 2026 (Jan 21 Shift 1) question paper, including topic weightage and memory-based questions.

Disclaimer: This analysis is based on memory-based feedback from students. The actual paper may vary slightly when the official question paper is released by NTA.

JEE Main 2026 Exam Overview

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) Main 2026
Conducting Body	National Testing Agency (NTA)
Date	21 January 2026
Shift	Morning Shift
Time	9:00 AM – 12:00 PM
Mode	Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration	3 Hours (180 minutes)
Official Website	jeemain.nta.nic.in

JEE Main 2026 Marking Scheme

• Correct Answer: +4 marks
• Incorrect Answer (MCQs): −1 mark
• Numerical Value Questions: No negative marking

Subject-wise Question Distribution

Subject	MCQs	Numerical Questions	Total Marks
Mathematics	20	5	100
Physics	20	5	100
Chemistry	20	5	100
Total	75	—	300

Overall Difficulty Verdict

• Overall Level: Moderate to Tough
• Difficulty Order:
  Chemistry > Mathematics > Physics
• Physics: Easiest section
• Chemistry: Toughest and time-consuming
• Mathematics: Moderate with some lengthy questions

Compared to JEE Main 2025, the paper was slightly more difficult, mainly due to lengthy Chemistry questions.

Section	Difficulty Level	Key Characteristic
Physics	Easy to Moderate	Formula-based & Scoring
Chemistry	Tough	Lengthy, Calculation-intensive
Mathematics	Moderate	Algebra-heavy, less lengthy than 2025
Overall	Moderate to Tough	Time management was key in Chemistry

Subject-Wise Paper Analysis

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Physics Paper Analysis

The Physics section was easy to moderate and mostly formula-based. Students who had revised standard formulas could attempt a good number of questions.

Physics Difficulty Level

• Easy to Moderate
• Easier than Mathematics and Chemistry
• Easier compared to JEE Main 2025

Important Physics Topics Asked

• Thermal Properties of Fluids (Bernoulli’s Theorem)
• Optics (Microscope, Power of Lens)
• Semiconductor Electronics (Logic Gates)
• Units & Dimensions (Dimensions and Error)
• Current Electricity
• Calorimetry
• Rotational Motion (Moment of Inertia)
• Kinematics (NLM)
• Gravitation
• Electromagnetic Waves
• Electromagnetic Induction
• Electrostatics

Student Feedback: Physics was scoring and manageable with proper revision.

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Chemistry Paper Analysis

The Chemistry section was the most difficult part of the paper. Questions were lengthy, statement-based, and required careful reading.

Chemistry Difficulty Level

• Tough
• Lengthy questions
• Required more time (60–70 minutes on average)

Important Chemistry Topics Asked

• Coordination Chemistry (3 questions)
• Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
• p-Block Elements
• Mole Concept (3–4 questions)
• General Organic Chemistry (GOC)
• Biomolecules
• Chemical Thermodynamics
• Electrochemistry & Redox Reactions
• Chemical & Ionic Equilibrium (mixed question)

Student Feedback: Chemistry was time-consuming and tricky, especially Inorganic and Physical Chemistry.

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Mathematics Paper Analysis

The Mathematics section was moderate. Some questions were lengthy but conceptually straightforward.

Mathematics Difficulty Level

• Moderate
• Easier than Chemistry
• Required speed and accuracy

Important Mathematics Topics Asked

• Calculus (few questions)
• Vector Algebra & 3D Geometry (2–3 questions)
• Quadratic Equations
• Matrices (lengthy)
• Sets and Relations (2 questions)
• Sequence and Series
• Permutation & Combination with Probability
• Straight Lines and Circles
• Conic Sections (Parabola, Ellipse, Hyperbola)
• Application of Derivatives
• Binomial Theorem
• Trigonometry

Student Feedback: Mathematics required good time management but was not overly difficult.

Expected Qualifying Cutoff (Percentile)

This is the minimum percentile required to qualify for JEE Advanced 2026.

Category	Expected Cutoff (Percentile)
Common Rank List (CRL)	91.5 – 93.5
EWS	78 – 81
OBC-NCL	76 – 79
SC	52 – 55
ST	39 – 43

Marks vs. Percentile Prediction (Jan 21, Shift 1)

This helps students estimate their rank based on their raw score.

Target Percentile	Approx. Score Required (Out of 300)	College Possibility
99.5+ %ile	205 - 215+	Top NITs (CS/EC)
99 %ile	180 - 190	Top NITs (Core Branches)
98 %ile	160 - 170	Good NITs/IIITs
95 %ile	130 - 140	Lower NITs / Top Pvt Colleges
90 %ile	88 - 95	Qualifying for JEE Advanced

Factors Influencing the Cut-off

The "Easy Physics" Factor: Since Physics was formula-based and easy, the average score will go up. Most serious aspirants will score 60+ in Physics alone.

The "Moderate Maths" Factor: Maths was not as brutally lengthy as in 2025. This means students likely solved 2-3 more questions in Maths than last year, pushing the cutoff slightly higher.

The "Tough Chemistry" Balancer: Chemistry is usually a high-scoring section. Since it was tough and lengthy this time, it will prevent the cutoff from going too high (like 200+ for 99%ile).

Top Memory-Based Questions (Jan 21 Shift 1)

Here are a few questions recreated from student memory to help you practice:

CHEMISTRY – MEMORY BASED QUESTIONS

Question 1

A reaction sequence is given:

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Question 2

For two chemical reactions A and B, if the difference between their activation energy is 20 kJ at 300 K (R = 8.3 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹).
Determine ln (k2 / k1).

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Question 3

In Carius method, 0.75 g of an organic compound gave 1.2 g of barium sulphate.
Find % of sulphur (molar mass of S = 32 g mol⁻¹, molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹).

Options:
A) 16.48%
B) 4.55%
C) 21.97%
D) 10.30%

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Question 4

In S estimation, 0.7 g of an organic compound gives 1 g BaSO₄ in Carius method.
What is the % of S in compound?

Options:

1. 19.61
2. 23.85
3. 27.93
4. 14.57

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Question 5

14.0 g of calcium metal is allowed to react with excess HCl at 1 atm pressure and 273 K.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(Molar Mass of Ca = 40, Cl = 35.5)

a) 0.35 mol of H₂ gas is evolved
b) The limiting reagent is calcium metal
c) 33.3 g of CaCl₂ is produced
d) 7.84 L of H₂ gas is evolved

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Question 6

Which of the following is correct order with respect to the property indicated?

1. Cl⁻ > O⁻ (Ionisation energy)
2. K₂O > Na₂O > Al₂O₃ (Basic nature)
3. K > Na > Al > Mg (Metallic character)
4. None of these

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Question 7

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids.
Statement II: Glycine does not have any chiral carbon.

In the light of above statements, which is correct?

1. Both statement I and II are correct
2. Both statement I and II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

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Question 8

Reaction sequence involving benzene:

Benzene
→ (conc. HNO₃ / conc. H₂SO₄) → (A)
→ (Sn / HCl) → (B)
→ (CH₃COCl / AlCl₃) → (C)
→ (conc. HNO₃ / conc. H₂SO₄) → (D)
→ (H₂O) → (E)

Find % of N in compound E.

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Question 9

In the following reaction:

MnO₄²⁻ → (H⁺)

Manganate ion undergoes disproportionation to form:

1. MnO₂ and MnO₄⁻
2. MnO₂ and MnO₄²⁻
3. MnO₂ and MnO
4. MnO₄⁻ and MnO

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Question 10

Observe the following reaction sequence:

(P) ──NH₃ / Δ──> (Q) ──Br₂ / KOH──> (R)

Which of the following is the correct structure for P, Q and R?

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Question 11

8.0 mL of organic compound is mixed with 264 mL O₂ and ignited.
It gives 224 mL of gaseous mixture at NTP.
After passing KOH, 64 mL of gas remains.

The organic compound is:

1. C₂H₄
2. C₂H₂
3. C₃H₁₀
4. C₃H₆

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Question 12

Statement A: But-8-ene shows optical isomer
Statement B: Propanal & Propanone are functional group isomers
Statement C: Pentane & 2,2-Dimethyl propane are chain isomers

Identify the correct statement:

A) Only A & B
B) Only A & C
C) Only B & C
D) All

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PHYSICS – MEMORY BASED QUESTIONS

Question 1

Which logic gate is given in the figure?

Options:

1. XOR
2. NOR
3. NAND
4. OR

Answer: Option 3 – NAND

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Question 2

A rod of mass m and length l is attached to two ideal strings.
Find tension in left string just after right string is cut.

Options:

1. mg/2
2. mg/3
3. 2mg/3
4. mg

Answer: Option 2

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Question 3

Find the heat produced in external circuit (AB) in one second.
(Circuit with 1Ω, 2Ω resistances and 8V battery)

Options:

1. 1181.25 J
2. 1311.25 J
3. 1207.50 J
4. 1410.50 J

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Question 4

A conducting circular loop of 100 turns, area 1.0 m² is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies as
B = sin(100t) tesla.
If resistance of loop is 100 Ω, find average thermal energy dissipated in one period.

Options:
A) 2π
B) π²
C) π/2
D) π/4

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Question 5

An α-particle having kinetic energy 7.7 MeV is approaching a fixed gold nucleus (atomic number 79).
Find distance of closest approach.

Options:

1. 1.72 nm
2. 6.2 nm
3. 16.8 nm
4. 0.2 nm

Answer: Option 1

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Question 6

A current carrying solenoid is placed vertically. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest along the axis.
If g is acceleration due to gravity, acceleration of charged particle will satisfy:

a) a = g
b) a = 0
c) 0 < a < g
d) a > g

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Question 7

An air filled capacitor of capacitance C is filled with dielectric (k = 3) of width d/3.
If d is separation between plates, the new capacitance is:

Options:

1. 5C/2
2. 4C/3
3. 3C/2
4. 4C/5

Answer: Option 4

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Question 8

A light wave described by
E = 60 (sin (3 × 10¹⁵ t) + sin (12 × 10¹⁵ t)) (SI unit)
falls on metal surface of work function 2.8 eV.
Find maximum KE of photoelectron (in eV). (h = 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ Js)

Options:
a) 7.8
b) 6.8
c) 3.8
d) 5.6

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Question 9

Find moment of inertia of system formed using two identical rods about the given axis of rotation.

Options:

1. 17/12 ML²
2. 11/12 ML²
3. 3/4 ML²
4. 4/3 ML²

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Question 10

Spring constant k₁ = 2 ± 0.1 N/m, k₂ = 4 ± 0.1 N/m are in parallel.
Find % error.

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Question 11

In a double slit experiment, distance between slits is 0.1 cm and screen is placed at 50 cm.
When slit is covered with transparent sheet of thickness t and refractive index 1.5, central fringe shifts by 0.2 cm.
Find value of t.

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MATHEMATICS – MEMORY BASED QUESTIONS

Question 1

The value of cosec 10° − √3 sec 10° is:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. None of these

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Question 2

If the roots of a² − x + 1 = 0 are α and β, find
(α + β)⁴ + (α² + β²)⁴ + … + (α²⁵ + β²⁵)⁴

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Question 3

If A = $\[2, 2$\[2,2, [1, 4]], B = $\[1, 1$\[1,1, [1, 1]]
and A² − 4A + 2I = 0; B² − 2B + I = 0
Find |adj (A³ − B³)|.

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Question 4

∫₀^π [Sin x + Sin 3x + Sin 4x] dx

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Question 5

The value of ∫₀^(π/2) |sin x + sin 2x + sin 3x| dx is:

1. π/3
2. π/2
3. π
4. 3

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Question 6

If y dy/dx + (1 + x²) dy + (1 − tan⁻¹x) dx = 0 and y(0) = 1, find y(1).

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Question 7

The sum of roots of equation |x − 1|² − 5|x − 1| + 6 = 0 is:

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Question 8

Find all points on curve y = x³ − 3x + 1 where tangent passes through (1, 2).

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Question 9

If L₁ and L₂ are two parallel lines and ΔABC is equilateral triangle, then area of triangle ABC is:

Options:

1. 7√3
2. 4√3
3. 21√3
4. 84

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Question 10

If α & β are roots of x² + x + 1 = 0, then value of
(α + β)⁴ + (α² + β²)⁴ + … + (α²⁵ + β²⁵)⁴ is:

Options:

1. 145
2. 140
3. 415
4. 541

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Question 11

Ellipse: x²/16 + y²/9 = 1
A hyperbola confocal with ellipse and eccentricity = 5/3.
Find length of latus rectum of hyperbola if its principal axis is x-axis.

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Question 12

Consider set S = {a, b, c, d}.
Number of reflexive as well as symmetric relations from S → S are:

1. 1024
2. 256
3. 16
4. 64

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Question 13

If x² + x + 1 = 0, then
(x + 1/x)⁴ + (x² + 1/x²)⁴ + … + (x²⁵ + 1/x²⁵)⁴ is:

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Question 14

The locus of point of intersection of tangent drawn to circle
(x − 2)² + y² = 16
which subtends an angle of 120° is:

1. 3x² + 3y² − 12x − 18y − 25 = 0
2. x² + y² − 12x − 18y − 25 = 0
3. 3x² + 3y² + 12x + 18y − 25 = 0
4. x² + y² + 12x + 18y − 25 = 0

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Question 15

If a₁, a₂, a₃, … are in increasing GP such that
a₁ + a₃ + a₅ = 21
a₁a₃a₅ = 64

Then a₁ + a₂ + a₃ is:

1. 5
2. 7
3. 10
4. 15

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Question 16

Find sum of rational terms in (2 + √3)⁸.

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Question 17

Let center of circle C is (0, 2), radius = 4.
Let A & B be point of contact of tangents.
Find locus of point of intersection of tangents if ∠AOB = 90°.

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Question 18

In expansion of (ax² + bx + c)(1 − 2x)²⁶,
if coefficient of x, x² and x³ are −56, 0, 0 respectively,
find value of a + b + c.

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Question 19

Find value of integral:

∫₀^(π/4) $(2x + 4sinx) / (1 − sinx)(1 + sinx)$(2x+4sinx)/(1−sinx)(1+sinx) dx

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Question 20

If mean and variance of observations x₁, x₂, 12, 14, 4, 10, 2 is 8 and 6 respectively where x₁ ≥ x₂,
find value of 3x₁ − x₂.

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Question 21

If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and B = {1, 2, 3, …, 8, 9}.
Then number of strictly increasing functions from A → B such that f(0) ≠ i ∀ i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 are:

Strategy for Upcoming Shifts

1. Don't Ignore POC: Practical Organic Chemistry (Carius/Kjeldahl methods) is being asked. Memorize the formulas.
2. Speed in Chemistry: Be prepared for lengthy statements in Inorganic and Organic chemistry.
3. Physics is Your Safety Net: Ensure you don't make silly mistakes in Physics; it is the high-scoring section this year.